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Is it true that Sir Francis Drake claimed part of modern day California for England ?

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  • Is it true that Sir Francis Drake claimed part of modern day California for England ?


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Answer #1 | 19/12 2013 22:56
Probably. Some claims are more enforceable than others
Answer #2 | 20/12 2013 00:00
Yes, on the principle of "Prior Discovery" , but such a claim has to be followed up with "Effective Occupation", and that was impossible for England at that time. The claim therefore lapsed.
Answer #3 | 20/12 2013 06:54
During this period in Western history, claims were made all over the place by many nations, but a great many of them were never enforced. This is a prime example. As for the natives in the area of California claimed by England, they were hardly bothered by it--since no settlers were sent to New Albion and therefore they were more concerned by the territorial claims of Spain (and the Spanish weren't known for their conciliatory disposition to natives in any of their holdings) than they were those of England.

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